EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...

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Question1: Content needs to be modular, structured, reusable and device and platform independent.

Question2: Companies do not rely on their information systems to run their operations.

Question3: Data flows map and document relationships between data and locations where global differences occur.

Question4: Access to data for Multidimensional databases use a variant of SQL called MDX or Multidimensional expression.

Question5: Effective data management involves a set of complex, interrelated processes that enable an organisation to use its data to achieve strategic goals.

Question6: In the context of big data the Three V's refer to: Volume, Velocity and Validity

Question7: Data profiling also includes cross-column analysis, which can identify overlapping or duplicate columns and expose embedded value dependencies.

Question8: The Belmont principles that may be adapted for Information Management disciplines, include:

Question9: A control activity in the metadata management environment includes loading statistical analysis.

Question10: Confirming and documenting understanding of different perspectives facilitate:

Question11: Data governance requires control mechanisms and procedures for, but not limited to, assignment and tracking of action items.

Question12: Data modeller: responsible for fata model version control an change control

Question13: Location Master Data includes business party addresses and business party location, as well as facility addresses for locations owned by organizations.

Question14: The dependencies of enterprise technology architecture are that it acts on specified data according to business requirements.

Question15: Please select the answer that best fits the following description: Contains only real-time data.

Question16: A critical step in data management organization design is identifying the best-fit operating model for the organization.

Question17: The first two steps in the data science process are:

Question18: The Data Warehouse has a set of storage areas, including:

Question19: Product Master data can only focus on an organization's internal product and services.

Question20: In a SQL injection attack, a perpetrator inserts authorized database statements into a vulnerable SQL data channel, such as a stored procedure.

Question21: Business rules describe why business should operate internally, in order to be successful and compliant with the outside world.

Question22: A goal of a Reference and Master Data Management program include enabling master and reference data to be shared across enterprise functions and applications.

Question23: Within the Data Handling Ethics Context Diagram a key deliverable is the Ethical Data Handling Strategy.

Question24: The most important reason to implement operational data quality measurements is to inform data consumers about levels of data effectiveness.

Question25: DAMA International's Certified Data Management Professional (CDMP) certification required that data management professionals subscribe to a formal code of ethics, including an obligation to handle data ethically for the sake of society beyond the organization that employs them.

Question26: Metadata is described using three sets od categories, including:

Question27: For each subject area logical model: Decrease detail by adding attributes and less-significant entities and relationships.

Question28: Instant Messaging (IM) allows a user to message each other in real-time.

Question29: A communication plan includes an engagement model for stakeholders, the type of information to be shared, and the schedule for sharing information.

Question30: Real-time data integration is usually triggered by batch processing, such as historic data.

Question31: Archiving is the process of moving data off immediately accessible storage media and onto media with lower retrieval performance.

Question32: Within projects, conceptual data modelling and logical data modelling are part of requirements planning and analysis activities, while physical data modelling is a design activity.

Question33: A sandbox is an alternate environment that allows write-only connections to production data and can be managed by the administrator.

Question34: Part of alignment includes developing organizational touchpoints for data governance work. Some examples of touchpoints include: Procurement and Contracts; Budget and Funding; Regulatory Compliance; and the SDLC framework.

Question35: An effective team is based on two simple foundations: trust and a common goal.

Question36: Project that use personal data should have a disciplined approach to the use of that dat a. They should account for:

Question37: Examples of the 'Who' entity category include: employee; patient; player; and suspect.

Question38: Accomplish repository scanning in two distinct approaches, including:

Question39: Layers of data governance are often part of the solution. This means determining where accountability should reside for stewardship activities and who the owners of the data are.

Question40: Decentralized informality can be made more formal through a documented series of connections and accountabilities via a RACI matrix.

Question41: Data parsing is the process of analysing data using pre-determined rules to define its content or value.

Question42: Customer relationship management systems manage Master Data about customers.

Question43: A general principle for managing metadata includes Responsibility.

Question44: Data governance requires control mechanisms and procedures for, but not limited to, identifying, capturing, logging and updating actions.

Question45: It is unwise to implement data quality checks to ensure that the copies of the attributes are correctly stored.

Question46: Operational Metadata describes details of the processing and accessing of dat a. Which one is not an example:

Question47: Please select the option that correctly orders the models in decreasing level of detail:

Question48: The database administrator (DBA) is the most established and the most widely adopted data professional role.

Question49: SLA Stands for:

Question50: The best DW/BI architects will design a mechanism to connect back to transactional level and operational level reports in an atomic DW.

Question51: Enterprise data architecture description must include both [1] as well as [2]

Question52: Field overloading: Unnecessary data duplication is often a result of poor data management.

Question53: The first two steps of the Reference data Change request process, as prescribed DMBOk2, include:

Question54: MPP is an abbreviation for Major Parallel Processing.

Question55: ETL is the basic process which is central to all areas in Data Integration and Interoperability. It is an abbreviation for extract, transition and load.

Question56: A deliverable in the data modelling and design context diagram is the logical data model.

Question57: Disciplines within the enterprise architecture practice does not include:

Question58: Examples of technical metadata include:

Question59: The IT security policy provides categories for individual application, database roles, user groups and information sensitivity.

Question60: What are the primary drivers of data security activities?

Question61: Factors that have shown to play a key role in the success in the success of effective data management organizations does not include:

Question62: All organizations have the same Master Data Management Drivers and obstacles.

Question63: Data replication can be active or passive.

Question64: Data architect: A senior analyst responsible for data architecture and data integration.

Question65: In matching, false positives are three references that do not represent the same entity are linked with a single identifier.

Question66: Business activity information is one of the types of data that can be modelled.

Question67: One of the deliverables in the Data Integration and Interoperability context diagram is:

Question68: Data security includes the planning, development and execution of security policies and procedures to provide authentication, authorisation, access and auditing of data and information assets.

Question69: Data modelling tools and model repositories are necessary for managing the enterprise data model in all levels.

Question70: The biggest business driver for developing organizational capabilities around Big Data and Data Science is the desire to find and act on business opportunities that may be discovered through data sets generated through a diversified range of processes.

Question71: A e-discovery readiness assessment should examine and identify opportunities for the commercial response program.

Question72: Please select the 3 visuals that depict DAMA's Data Management Framework.

Question73: There are numerous methods of implementing databases on the cloud. The most common are:

Question74: DBAs exclusively perform all the activities of data storage and operations.

Question75: Subtype absorption: The subtype entity attributes are included as nullable columns into a table representing the supertype entity

Question76: A hacker is a person who finds unknown operations and pathways within complex computer system. Hackers are only bad.

Question77: Governance ensures data is managed, but is not include the actual act of managing data.

Question78: Different types of product Master Data solutions include:

Question79: An advantage of a centralized repository include: Quick metadata retrieval, since the repository and the query reside together.

Question80: Data Integrity includes ideas associated with completeness, accuracy, and consistency.

Question81: Those responsible for the data-sharing environment have an obligation to downstream data consumers to provide high quality data.

Question82: Data security issues, breaches and unwarranted restrictions on employee access to data cannot directly impact operational success.

Question83: Activities that drive the goals in the context diagram are classified into the following phases:

Question84: Structural Metadata describe srealtionships within and among resource and enables identification and retrieval.

Question85: Effectiveness metrics for a data governance programme includes: achievement of goals and objectives; extend stewards are using the relevant tools; effectiveness of communication; and effectiveness of education.